|
Originally Posted by dutchmasterflex
How does an inline-6 that revs to 8000rpm have the same piston velocity as a V8/V10 that revs to 18000rpm?
|
Cause this engine has a long stroke (91 mm) compared to the stroke of an F1 car (V10 F1 engines had a stroke of about 45 mm).
Thus the pistons can reach the same average velocity at relatively low revs compared to the pistons of an F1 engine, which don't have to travel much up and down due to the short stroke of an F1 engine.
The mean velocity of this BMW engine at the limiter is about 24,26 m/s, and for an F1 engine with a stroke of 45 mm the mean velocity would be the same at about 16200 rpm.
But of course the mean velocity doesn't tell you much about the maximum velocity. More however, piston acceleration figures are far more important to the design of the moving parts of the engine.