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-   -   Do heavier objects "fall" faster? (http://www.motorworld.net/forum/showthread.php?t=44999)

Z3uS 02-05-2007 12:28 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Vansquish
Quote:

Originally Posted by Z3uS
They fall the same speed.

Want to make a test? Just get a book and a sheet of paper, make the book bigger in area than the paper. Then just put the paper on top of the book (on the cover) and let it loose. They will fall together, same speed, same time.

That has more to do with the aerodynamic properties of the book and the fact that the turbulence that forms on top of the book would force the paper to lie flat against the surface of the book.

In fact it was a bad example, but the only one i could come up with at noon.

Well, just remember the hammer and the feather experience done in space. :D

Skaala 02-05-2007 06:24 AM

any object will given a long enough fall, reach their terminal velocity by 9,8 m/s/s by http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/6/e...b3a7f16172.png

Vt is the terminal velocity,
m is the mass of the falling object,
g is gravitational acceleration,
Cd is the drag coefficient,
ρ is the density of the fluid the object is falling through, and
A is the object's cross-sectional area.

Vansquish 02-06-2007 07:01 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by saadie
yep all the objects experiece the same gravitational put which varies with altitude and blah blah ...... the thing is ... if the weight of one object is 2 and the weight of the other object is 4 .. what then ? .... the gravitational force is not the same on everyobject .. it varies with the weight of the object ;) ... why is a 20 kg weight heavier then a 2 kg weight ? when you try lifting it up :) ... because more gravitational pull is being applied to it
which mean the gravitational pull multiplies according to the weight ;) ..

i donno what i just said :? 8)

On the contrary. As stated earlier in this thread, the two masses (say 2kg and 4kg) would experience the same force of gravity and thus, all other things being equal, fall towards the ground from any given altitude, at the same rate. On the other hand, if we actually take into account the gravitational forces applied by the masses on Earth, there is a very small, for all intents and purposes, unmeasureably miniscule difference in the rates at which they would fall. For two VERY massive objects, the rate would be significantly different than for one very massive object and something lighter, like a building, or a bowling ball, or a feather (all of which would be significantly lighter than the "very massive" object.

ae86_16v 02-06-2007 10:05 PM

^ Thank you for further explaining it. 8)

Vansquish 02-06-2007 11:00 PM

^^ No prob...at least I get to use the Physics degree somewhere! :-D

malte 02-07-2007 06:12 PM

ok leaving drag out of it, and making the gravitational pulling question a bit more uhmm clear...

the effect we are looking for is more suited for an example in space... imagine placing a planet next to the sun, and then imagine placing another star next to the sun. What we are trying to determine is whether or not the rate of which the gap between the objects close is the same.

i'm suddenly starting to have my doubts

Vansquish 02-08-2007 12:59 AM

ok...put the Earth next to the Sun...the distance between the two would decrease at rate A, given that the two started from fixed positions and moved in a straight line towards each other (yes, both would be moving as, they would both exert some gravitational pull on each other).

Now put a star the same mass as the Sun next to the Sun, under the same conditions as the Earth-Sun system, the distance between the two would decrease at rate B, which would be GREATER than rate A, as the gravitational forces at work would be significantly greater than in the Earth-Sun system.

Now, the only reason that there is a MEASUREABLE difference between the two is because the Sun (and the star in question) is significantly more massive than the Earth.


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